Tuesday, May 11, 2010

Isn't it legalized discrimination if a State has a law banning gay marriage?

Basically, the State is discriminating against a group of people. Just like during the Civil Rights movement, can't the Federal Gov't step in and stop this legalized discrimination which is a violation of the 14th Amendment?Isn't it legalized discrimination if a State has a law banning gay marriage?
Yeah pretty much. The thing is, it hasn't gotten up to the SCOTUS yet. In California it was declared unconstitutional (gay marriage ban) but this year there is a prop. (8) to place a constitutional amendment to ban it (in CA constitution.) I'm voting against it. What this is doing is no different than what Jim Crow laws did to Blacks.Isn't it legalized discrimination if a State has a law banning gay marriage?
I'm assuming you mean equal protection?





Weak argument, at best.





The feds are very unlikely to intervene in the state, for two good reasons:





One, it is the state's right how they define marriage.





Two, there is a federal law defining marriage as between one man and one woman.
Of course it *could*, but it isn't going to, at least not under this President. You see, the current administration supports discrimination, as do many so-called Americans.
So...if a group of pedifiles wanted to marry 10 year old boys or if a freak wanted to marry his dog, they should be allowed and protected under your way of thinking?

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